by natsean
Hey,I just want to make sure I understand how this works.
My son (Warlock) tries to cast Ghoul Rot on one of my Knights (I'm the Priestess) with Reverse Magic on it.
So, it works like this?
1.) My son announces the Knight as the target and pays 2 to cast the spell. (I'm unsure about this: the rulebook says Reverse Magic is revealed in the Counter Spell step after costs are paid, but then it seems like the spell is paid for twice. My inclination is to reveal it as soon as he says, "Knight is the target," but that isn't the Counter Spell step.)
2.) I pay 5 and reveal Reverse Magic. Ghoul Rot is my spell now.
3.) I target the Warlock and pay 2 to attach it to him. (Do I need to do this or is it already "cast" since the Warlock paid for it?)
4.) I then decide to reveal it right away. I then pay 6 (4 + 2 Magebind) to reveal and, lo, the Warlock is now cursed with his own curse.
Does this sound right?
Thanks,
Kevin
